On exam, he has a normal if not slightly antalgic gait, with a normal knee exam except for a trace, non-ballotable effusion.
Regarding his management, which is the BEST answer:
A. Corticoid injection to knee joint and follow-up in a week
B. Knee brace and crutches until pain resolves
C. Plain films of the knee for occult injury
D. Reexamine his anterior knee and quadriceps
In the meantime, a quote --
"Disease is very old, and nothing about it has changed. It is we who change, as we learn and recognize what was formerly imperceptible."
De l’expectation en médecine
-- Jean Martin Charcot (1825-1893) Paris Neurologist