brought in by his mother for groin swelling today. She explains that he has a bulge in his right groin when he cries, but now “it hasn’t gone down”.
There is no history of increased crying, vomiting, obstipation, fever, or change in
intake or behavior.
You see a happy active boy with normal vital signs and a normal general
examination. He has a right hemiscrotum moderately filled with fluid; further exam reveals a just palpable non-tender mass that readily disappears with pressure.
Which of the following is NOT independently predictive of the need for acute surgical
intervention:
A. Age < 1 year
B. Female gender
C. Presence of fluid in scrotum
D. Prematurity
In the meantime, a quote –
“The physician should not treat the disease but the patient who is suffering from it”
― Maimonides