An 11-year-old boy presents with acute onset left knee pain. The boy states that he was running the bases during a baseball game, when he felt a “pop”, and fell on his left knee. He has no past medical history. On exam, he has normal vital signs. His head-to-toe exam is normal, except for a swollen and painful left knee; he is neurovascularly intact distally.
His left knee plain radiographs are below:
Regarding his presentation and management, which of the following is the BEST answer:
A. This is a common presentation in his age range; once reduced, his fracture will heal readily
B. This is a significant comminuted fracture as demonstrated by the lateral film; he will require an intramedullary rod
C. He will require both medical and surgical intensive treatment
D. He should be evaluated for a deep bone infection
His left knee plain radiographs are below:
Regarding his presentation and management, which of the following is the BEST answer:
A. This is a common presentation in his age range; once reduced, his fracture will heal readily
B. This is a significant comminuted fracture as demonstrated by the lateral film; he will require an intramedullary rod
C. He will require both medical and surgical intensive treatment
D. He should be evaluated for a deep bone infection
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