
His left knee plain radiographs are below:
Regarding his presentation and management, which of the following is the BEST answer:
A. This is a common presentation in his age range; once reduced, his fracture will heal readily
B. This is a significant comminuted fracture as demonstrated by the lateral film; he will require an intramedullary rod
C. He will require both medical and surgical intensive treatment
D. He should be evaluated for a deep bone infection